g(x)=1/x2 is the inverse of the function f(x) = 1=kx/x
help please i have loads more im stuck on

MAYYAMIMI
Firstly, know that g(x) just means y
So, y=1/(x2)
Now, get everything in terms of x, so;
y(x2)=1
x2=1/y
x=(1/y)+2
Okay, so now you turn the x into f(x) or g inverse of x, whichever one as you said one was the inverse of the other
And you change the y on the other side to x (you don't have to know why)
So f(x)=(1/x)+2
Multiply 2 by x to get it on top of the fraction
f(x)=(1+2x)/x
So you can deduce that k=2
I understand it might be a bit hard to understand math in this format but I tried my best lol

Me
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